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The reasoning is fe u must know it is in the max height(peak)Hi, can someone help me allocate (and explain the positions) of each nucleon please? Q8(a)
Thank you very much in advance.
Since ideal gas's internal energy is directly proportional to the temperature, del u will be 0. Wince it is being compressed, the volume decreases and W=+. To make the U=O, Q=-anyone who can explain this? :'(
View attachment 42805
The reasoning is fe u must know it is in the max height(peak)
For h the ar is the smallest.
N the zr should be to the right because of higher ar than fe
Fe-56 has the greatest value for binding energy! (ie, it is most stable)
H-2 is the lowest point
Zr-97 is around midway of the graph, probably more towards left.
http://qph.ec.quoracdn.net/main-qimg-f0e7b4a4ff7811ed8e0855900b2c4dd7 (check out the graph)
anyone who can explain this? :'(
View attachment 42805
http://papers.xtremepapers.com/CIE/Cambridge International A and AS Level/Physics (9702)/9702_w07_qp_4.pdf
Q5(b) 2 PART.Is there an easy method to find the area in this case?????
Okay for the first questionWould like some explanations for the following questions:
s11_43: Q3(c), Q9(b, all), Q11(a) & (b), Q12(b)
Okay for the first question
for 9b,,,1)gain(memorising stuff)
(11)the attachment
(111)vout=12*(1000/1128)*4.5
Thank you! What I don´t get is that you have calcualted the total capacitance to find the total charge? But on the question they ask for the charge one one plate of capacitor X. I simply don´t understand why the total capacitance and times by the p.d. would give the magnitude of the charge ON ONE PLATE OF CAPACITOR X.
Would like some explanations for the following questions:
s11_43: Q3(c), Q9(b, all), Q11(a) & (b), Q12(b)
Q12(b)
UV radiation has shorter wavelength and therefore it means that it has a greater frequency, resulting in higher attenuation.The maximum uninterrupted length when using UV would be less and therefore IR radiation is used ,which has a lower frequency and result in much less atenuation!
Sorry for that...For (ii), there is no answer for V1? and for (iii) the ans of Vout you get is 47.9V instead of 0.128V
Hey for the amplifier question, Its an inverting amplifer.
The main formula to be used here is : gain = Vout/Vin = - Rf/Rin.
So, (i) is gain.
(ii), Vout= 0,
so, gain= 0/Vin (Vin = V2-V1)
from here you can say, V2=V1 (using maths, Vin = 0 or V2 - V1=0 or V1=V2)
Thus, we can use the line from strain guage as V1=V2.
therfore, we use potential divider formula to find the potential : i.e, V1 = 1000/(1000+125) * 4.5
(iii) again we use potential divider formula to find V2 as V1 remains constant, but the resistance is 128. Finally we use the gain formula!
I hope this kind of question doesn;t come :|
I guess that how it works....The charge on one capacitor represent the charge of the whole thing....Conservation of charge i guess.Not really sure abt it...
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