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Doubt

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Hi everybody,

Could someone kindly help me with question no. 1 a(ii) of O/N 2007 Paper 3.

Why is the answer of acccelerating 0 to 4.2 sec in the marking scheme when the ball is deaccelerating after 1.2 sec ?
regards...
 
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If i am not wrong, they have asked about he time of acceleration whereas the ball has terminal velocity till 6 seconds and abruptly the velocity changes to 0. So if you subtract the time of terminal velocity from the total time shown on graph, you will get the acceleration time. Note: The ball is not decelerating after 1.2 seconds , it is at terminal velocity and at 6 seconds the velocity becomes 0.
If my explanation is wrong, specify the subject code first so I may recheck my answer.
 
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