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Mathematics: Post your doubts here!

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Can the co efficient of friction be greater than 1?
Our teacher said it can't be but in a past paper question the coefficient of friction is 1.62 so m a li'l confused :/
Suchal Riaz
 
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Can the co efficient of friction be greater than 1?
Our teacher said it can't be but in a past paper question the coefficient of friction is 1.62 so m a li'l confused :/
Suchal Riaz
It absolutely can be greater than 1. Coefficient of friction is actually tan of the angle of friction. And tan can be greater than 1.
In 2010 question it's value was 1.62. So it can be greater than 1. There is no reason why it can't be.
 
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Oct nov 13 varient 32 question 3 and 4 :/ Aly Emran View attachment 39374
Im soo sorry i late but lemme tell u :)
Do it through integration by parts
Remember!!
Take ln x as first function

f= integration symbol

=fLnx*x^-1/2
=lnx*2x^1/2- 2f(x^1/2* x^-1)dx
Its too hard to type in math lang :p
I hope u can now do it from this point :)

Qstn 4 was hard i lost all marks cox of this :/

Do it like dx/dy and dy/dx
And then the product rule will be used :)
Sorry i cant type the long answer :/
Im using mobile :/
 
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Im soo sorry i late but lemme tell u :)
Do it through integration by parts
Remember!!
Take ln x as first function

f= integration symbol

=fLnx*x^-1/2
=lnx*2x^1/2- 2f(x^1/2* x^-1)dx
Its too hard to type in math lang :p
I hope u can now do it from this point :)

Qstn 4 was hard i lost all marks cox of this :/

Do it like dx/dy and dy/dx
And then the product rule will be used :)
Sorry i cant type the long answer :/
Im using mobile :/
Oww its okay Alo ....i got it nw !!! :) :D
 
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It absolutely can be greater than 1. Coefficient of friction is actually tan of the angle of friction. And tan can be greater than 1.
In 2010 question it's value was 1.62. So it can be greater than 1. There is no reason why it can't be.
Yeah I was doing the same paper:D thanks alot :)
 
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