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I recently looked at the A-levels equivalence formula of IBCC and I was wondering why they use your O-Levels grades along with the A-levels grades to determine the FSc equivalent marks? Why not use ONLY A-LEVELS GRADES to determine the FSc equivalent marks?
I did really bad on my O-Levels and I thought it wouldn't effect me that much if I improved on my A-Levels, which I did.
My O-levels equivalence to metric marks got me 600/900 marks and now in A-Levels I got 3 A*s which is 90% in A-Levels so I should get 990/1100 marks in FSc but because they include O-Levels grades in FSc equivalence, I end up getting 803/1100 marks!
This shows that they give almost 70% weightage to your O-Levels marks in your FSc equivalence which is a very poor indication of how you performed in your college years.
I'm guessing most people don't object to this because almost everyone gets better grades in O-levels than in A-levels so the formula benefits them but then people who improve, like me, get screwed!
If anyone knows why they do this and can give any proper reason to this method of equivalence, please respond!
I did really bad on my O-Levels and I thought it wouldn't effect me that much if I improved on my A-Levels, which I did.
My O-levels equivalence to metric marks got me 600/900 marks and now in A-Levels I got 3 A*s which is 90% in A-Levels so I should get 990/1100 marks in FSc but because they include O-Levels grades in FSc equivalence, I end up getting 803/1100 marks!
This shows that they give almost 70% weightage to your O-Levels marks in your FSc equivalence which is a very poor indication of how you performed in your college years.
I'm guessing most people don't object to this because almost everyone gets better grades in O-levels than in A-levels so the formula benefits them but then people who improve, like me, get screwed!
If anyone knows why they do this and can give any proper reason to this method of equivalence, please respond!