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Accounts p3 doubts

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16.

Here dont use the book's gearing formula use the one examiner gave ie,
(loan capital plus bank and other borrowings / total capital employed. ) * 100

= ((48 +20 ) / ( 48 +20 29+43)) *100 = 48.57% so the ans. is A.

28.
Average investment = (160+20) / 2 = 90

Average profit = 64 -14 - Depreciation((160-20)/4) = 64-14-35 =15

ARR = (15/90) *100 =16.67 % so the ans. is C.

30.
8000 * (1.000 + 0.909 + 0.826 + 0.751) = $27888 so the ans. is approx C.
 
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16.
Retained earnings stays the same ... premium on redemption is charged to share premium ie, (100000* .1) = 10000
Premium balance will be = 240- 10 = 230000 and retained earnings 180000 so ans . is D.

21.
Equivalent units according to material / labour = 4000 + (400 * 0.8) = 4320 units.
Equivalent units according to overheads = 4000 + (400*.6) = 4240 units

Cost per unit completed material / labour = 8640/4320 = $2
Cost per unit completed overheads = 6360 / 4240 = $1.5

Cost per unit WIP material / labour = 2 * 0.8 = $ 1.60
Cost per unit WIP overheads = 1.5 * 0.6 = $ 0.90
Per unit cost WIP = 0.9 + 1.6 = $2.5
Total WIP cost = 2.5 * 400 = $1000 so ans is A.

28.
Sales price charged is higher so it should be favorable = ((38-40)*9000) = $18000 F
Sales volume is lower so it shud be adverse = ((9500 -9000) * 38) = $19000 (A)
so ans. is C.

30.
Year 1 = 2* 0.91 = $1.82 m
Year 2 = 2* .83 = $1.66 m
Year 3 = (2+0.5) * .75 = $1.875 m

Total = 1.82 +1.66 + 1.875 = $ 5.355 m approx B.
 
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16.
Retained earnings stays the same ... premium on redemption is charged to share premium ie, (100000* .1) = 10000
Premium balance will be = 240- 10 = 230000 and retained earnings 180000 so ans . is D.

21.
Equivalent units according to material / labour = 4000 + (400 * 0.8) = 4320 units.
Equivalent units according to overheads = 4000 + (400*.6) = 4240 units

Cost per unit completed material / labour = 8640/4320 = $2
Cost per unit completed overheads = 6360 / 4240 = $1.5

Cost per unit WIP material / labour = 2 * 0.8 = $ 1.60
Cost per unit WIP overheads = 1.5 * 0.6 = $ 0.90
Per unit cost WIP = 0.9 + 1.6 = $2.5
Total WIP cost = 2.5 * 400 = $1000 so ans is A.

28.
Sales price charged is higher so it should be favorable = ((38-40)*9000) = $18000 F
Sales volume is lower so it shud be adverse = ((9500 -9000) * 38) = $19000 (A)
so ans. is C.

30.
Year 1 = 2* 0.91 = $1.82 m
Year 2 = 2* .83 = $1.66 m
Year 3 = (2+0.5) * .75 = $1.875 m

Total = 1.82 +1.66 + 1.875 = $ 5.355 m approx B.


u really are genies!but man ques 28 (38-40)= -2 so adverse and when do we have to follow the rule of equivalent units??

n man THANKSS!
there could be more after this post!
 
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16.

Here dont use the book's gearing formula use the one examiner gave ie,
(loan capital plus bank and other borrowings / total capital employed. ) * 100

= ((48 +20 ) / ( 48 +20 29+43)) *100 = 48.57% so the ans. is A.

28.
Average investment = (160+20) / 2 = 90

Average profit = 64 -14 - Depreciation((160-20)/4) = 64-14-35 =15

ARR = (15/90) *100 =16.67 % so the ans. is C.

30.
8000 * (1.000 + 0.909 + 0.826 + 0.751) = $27888 so the ans. is approx C.
Thanx alot
 
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191
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Messages
191
Reaction score
175
Points
53

1.
Balance on Z's Capital a/c = $32000
Car on retirement = $(4000)
Loss on revaluation of car ((4600 - 4000) / 3) = ($200)
Increase on goodwill share (15000/3) = $5000
Total owed to Z on retirement = 32000 - 4000 - 200 +5000 = $ 32800 so the ans is B.

15.
Land revaluation and proposed dividends are not a part of calculation of retained earnings.
This is because IAS 10 abolished need of recording proposed dividends and is only disclosed in note to accounts.
Land revaluation is shown in a separate statement namely " Statement of recognized income and losses" see the IAS booklet.
So the ans is 50 + 30 - 15 = $ 65000 which is B.

19.
Variable part of Total cost = (13500 - 6000) / 3000 = $2.50
Fixed part of Total costs = (6000 - (2.5 * 2000)) = $1000
Increase in Fixed costs above 5000 units = $2000
Total fixed costs = 1000 + 2000 = $3000
Total cost for 6000 units = 3000 + ( 2.5 * 6000) = $18000. so ans is C.
 
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u really are genies!but man ques 28 (38-40)= -2 so adverse and when do we have to follow the rule of equivalent units??

n man THANKSS!
there could be more after this post!

28.
it's not adverse we write it like this to find variance... just see that u r getting a higher sale price per unit so its favourable and lower demand(sales volume) so adverse
Equivalent units followed whenever there is work in progress
 
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1.
Balance on Z's Capital a/c = $32000
Car on retirement = $(4000)
Loss on revaluation of car ((4600 - 4000) / 3) = ($200)
Increase on goodwill share (15000/3) = $5000
Total owed to Z on retirement = 32000 - 4000 - 200 +5000 = $ 32800 so the ans is B.

15.
Land revaluation and proposed dividends are not a part of calculation of retained earnings.
This is because IAS 10 abolished need of recording proposed dividends and is only disclosed in note to accounts.
Land revaluation is shown in a separate statement namely " Statement of recognized income and losses" see the IAS booklet.
So the ans is 50 + 30 - 15 = $ 65000 which is B.

19.
Variable part of Total cost = (13500 - 6000) / 3000 = $2.50
Fixed part of Total costs = (6000 - (2.5 * 2000)) = $1000
Increase in Fixed costs above 5000 units = $2000
Total fixed costs = 1000 + 2000 = $3000
Total cost for 6000 units = 3000 + ( 2.5 * 6000) = $18000. so ans is C.
Thanx alot mann..
 
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Sorry i m late... i was sleeping wen u posted this...

6.
Net assets of Ess before takeover =$250000
Goodwill acquired = 100000 - 80000 = $20000
Net assets acquired of Tee = $80000
Cash paid = $(100000)
Net movement of net assets = 250 + 20 +80 -100 = $250000. so the ans. is C.

10.
Book value per share = (Nominal value of Ordinary shares +all reserves ) / no. of ordinary shares
Let nominal value of an ordinary share be x
50 = ( 15000x + 420000) / 15000
(50 * 15000 ) - 420000 = 15000x
x = 330000/15000
x= $22. so the ans. is A.

12.
Only dividends payable within the period 1 June 2009 - 31 May 2010 year will be recorded = 100+50 = $ 150000 so the ans. is B.

14.
ROCE = (Net profit / Net assets which are equal to capital employed) * 100
20 / 100 = NP / Net assets
NP / Net assets = 0.2
Net assets * 0.2 = NP

Asset turnover = Sales / Net assets
2.5 = Sales / Net assets
Net assets * 2.5 = sales

Net profit ratio = (NP / Sales) *100
((Net assets * 0.2) / (Net assets * 2.5 ) ) * 100 =Net profit ratio
cancel out net assets in numerator and denominator
(0.2/2.5) * 100 = 8% so the ans. is A.

16.
First year of trading means Opening inventory = $0
Cost of goods sold / Avg inventory = 6 times
Cost of goods sold = 180000*6 = $1,080,000
Opening inventory + Purchases - Closing inventory = Cost of goods sold
0+ Purchases - 200000 = 1080000
Purchases = 1080000+200000 = $1,280,000 so the ans. is C.

28.
1600 is 4%
1600 / 0.04 = 40000 is the budgeted fixed overhead expenditure
Actual = 40000-1600 = $38400 "OR" Actual = 40000 * (100-4)% = 40000 * .96 = $38400 so B is the ans.
 
Messages
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Sorry i m late... i was sleeping wen u posted this...

6.
Net assets of Ess before takeover =$250000
Goodwill acquired = 100000 - 80000 = $20000
Net assets acquired of Tee = $80000
Cash paid = $(100000)
Net movement of net assets = 250 + 20 +80 -100 = $250000. so the ans. is C.

10.
Book value per share = (Nominal value of Ordinary shares +all reserves ) / no. of ordinary shares
Let nominal value of an ordinary share be x
50 = ( 15000x + 420000) / 15000
(50 * 15000 ) - 420000 = 15000x
x = 330000/15000
x= $22. so the ans. is A.

12.
Only dividends payable within the period 1 June 2009 - 31 May 2010 year will be recorded = 100+50 = $ 150000 so the ans. is B.

14.
ROCE = (Net profit / Net assets which are equal to capital employed) * 100
20 / 100 = NP / Net assets
NP / Net assets = 0.2
Net assets * 0.2 = NP

Asset turnover = Sales / Net assets
2.5 = Sales / Net assets
Net assets * 2.5 = sales

Net profit ratio = (NP / Sales) *100
((Net assets * 0.2) / (Net assets * 2.5 ) ) * 100 =Net profit ratio
cancel out net assets in numerator and denominator
(0.2/2.5) * 100 = 8% so the ans. is A.

16.
First year of trading means Opening inventory = $0
Cost of goods sold / Avg inventory = 6 times
Cost of goods sold = 180000*6 = $1,080,000
Opening inventory + Purchases - Closing inventory = Cost of goods sold
0+ Purchases - 200000 = 1080000
Purchases = 1080000+200000 = $1,280,000 so the ans. is C.

28.
1600 is 4%
1600 / 0.04 = 40000 is the budgeted fixed overhead expenditure
Actual = 40000-1600 = $38400 "OR" Actual = 40000 * (100-4)% = 40000 * .96 = $38400 so B is the ans.
Thanx alot man, tht was really helpful at da last moment :)
 
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