I wrote FAt , will i get mark there ?they were lipids, actually. It said in the beginning of the question.
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I wrote FAt , will i get mark there ?they were lipids, actually. It said in the beginning of the question.
lol ok2:30 AM here in KL. Off to sleep! Good luck guys
Don't remember, I guess it was the one where you had to write down the effect of ADH on kidney i think or maybe it was the FSH one.Now come to Q 7, what was it ? :S
They didn't ask HOW but you just had to comment whether it plays a role in the activeness of spermatozoa or not.Ohhh. the FSH. Dang. So how would it affect the spermatozoa? FSH in males, I was like wuuut.
Ahh yes. DISCUSS.They didn't ask HOW but you just had to comment whether it plays a role in the activeness of spermatozoa or not.
You had to do that by looking at the table, make a comment, quote paired figures from the table and done
1.concentration of water molecules in a solution, like in blood
2. The mutation cause a change in base which now coded for a stop codon hence different primary structure smaller polypeptide chain so smaller mass of protein produces.
3.DNA contains gene for proteins, specific to only chloroplast. as chloroplast also conatin 70S ribosome so translation is done in the chloroplast for such proteins. But I named protein as example RUBISCO
4.I didn't attemt did Q9
5. as infants metabolic activities are less they donot produce enough heat by other processes, so BAT is there as BAT release heat energy by synthesis of ATP.
why should normal with recession the person with NF has to be recessive, coz' NF is caused due to recessive conditions :/
Sorry but I guess you guys did it wrong. If it was dominant, it won't have symptom less carriers that produced an infected offspring. NF gene was recessive, for sure. And the normal conditions are always dominant, which is why majority of the human population is normal, rather than diseased.I did the same thing !
and all my class mates done the same , it said at least 50% which shows its caused by dominant allele ,
inshallah we are all right
Sorry but I guess you guys did it wrong. If it was dominant, it won't have symptom less carriers that produced an infected offspring. NF gene was recessive, for sure. And the normal conditions are always dominant, which is why majority of the human population is normal, rather than diseased.
Exactly! It said a male with the disease caused by NF was crossed with a female which wasnt affected. If NF is recessive, it gave nn and the female, being heterozygous, gave Nn genes, N being normal and n being recessive for NF. The cross results in 50% chance for both. Do it yourself. And clearly, in the second part, it reffered to the family background of the NF affected offspring. The question asked the references from the genotypes of the family. So you had to discuss the heterozygosity, and symptom less carrier thing, not any mutation. It was of 3 marks, as far as I can remember.I hate to break it to you, but you seem to be wrong. The question clearly stated that when a person with NF has offspring, there is a 50% chance of an individual with NF being born. Work it out for yourself. If it was a recessive gene, it could only display itself in a homozygous recessive condition and so it would have a maximum 25% chance of the individual suffering from NF.
As for the second part of your question, the question stated, why is it that in some individuals who are not carriers of the disease an offspring may be produced which has the disease. The answer to this was that there is a chance of a mutation occurring. It had nothing to do with recessive genes.
Dont argue when you are not sure !!Exactly! It said a male with the disease caused by NF was crossed with a female which wasnt affected. If NF is recessive, it gave nn and the female, being heterozygous, gave Nn genes, N being normal and n being recessive for NF. The cross results in 50% chance for both. Do it yourself. And clearly, in the second part, it reffered to the family background of the NF affected offspring. The question asked the references from the genotypes of the family. So you had to discuss the heterozygosity, and symptom less carrier thing, not any mutation. It was of 3 marks, as far as I can remember.
Nobody's arguing here Why so serious? The next part doesnt make sense then, the family background thing. Hoping for the best *fingers crossedDont argue when you are not sure !!
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Neurofibromatosis
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/NeurofibromatosisSorry but I guess you guys did it wrong. If it was dominant, it won't have symptom less carriers that produced an infected offspring. NF gene was recessive, for sure. And the normal conditions are always dominant, which is why majority of the human population is normal, rather than diseased.
I did.Did anyone else find it really straightforward?
aint you from varient 1 ? :SI did.
Oh crap.
Apparently, I put nn for the affected parent and Nn for the unaffected parent
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