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haha i got everything except why 12+36 not 36-12?
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Ill pray 4 u dont worry. BTW m sooo bad at physics. I hate that subject. Im taking 8 subjects n m writing in may/june 2. Pray 4 me 2. N ur answer helped alot thnxAssalam u Alaikum
It is mentioned that line AB is 100meters.
First, you have to measure the length of line AB using a rule, let's say x cm.
You have to simplify them into their lowest form, but the unites aren't same. Either convert the cm in meter by dividing by 100 or convert the meters into cm by multiplying by 100. I personally prefer the latter. Now you have x:10000.
Simplify till you get x as 1 and then you have n.
Hope it helped.
I am appearing for May/June 2012 for six subjects and I didn't prepare for any but Physics. Please pray.
ThnxUse a scale to measure the length of AB in the diagram
then:
Actual : Map
10000 cm : (whatever is the length of AB in the diagram)
Simplify to get the value of n!
http://www.xtremepapers.com/papers/CIE/Cambridge IGCSE/Mathematics (0580)/0580_w10_qp_41.pdf
i.e 0580 o/n 2010 qp 41
can u explain how to do the last question?
thanks in advance ;D
6.8? It must be more... something above 7 cm.http://www.xtremepapers.com/papers/CIE/Cambridge IGCSE/Mathematics (0580)/0580_s11_qp_42.pdf
question 3 part i know it so silly but when i measure it it gives me 6.8 :S whyy? with a rule i knw it is so stupid but excuse me i wanna know my mistake thanks a lot
hahah i knw i need to multiply it but when i measure its its 6.8 :S idk yy hahaha its freaky6.8? It must be more... something above 7 cm.
Then you multiply it with the scale and of the diagram which in this case is 1 : 20 and you'll get the actual distance
thanks againAssalam u Alaikum.
Sure!
9)
ai) P6 = 1+2+3+4+5+6 = 21.
aii) Substitute 6 in the place of n. This gives 1/2 (6) * [(6)+1]. This would give the answer, 21, which is the same as our previous answer, hence the formula works!
aiii) We do the same thing like aii. 1/2 (50) * [(50)+1]. This would give an answer of 1275.
aiv) Because the last value is 150, this gives a value of P150 . 150 is thrice the size of 50, so we multiply our answer in part aiii by 3. The answer is 3825.
av) This question is similar, except for the fact that we use the formula instead. 1/2 (150) * [(150)+1] = 11325.
avi) Apparently the answer is av-aiv. I don't understand how to do it myself, so sorry. The answer is 7500.
b)
The part b is a little tricky. If you look at whole thing, line by line, you will notice a change. The first line has 1x1 because there is just one '1'. The second line has 1x2 because there are two '1'. That is the pattern, the first number is the next number in series whereas the second number shows how many times has the first number been posted.
Going through this, the answer for part bi) is.
(1x6)+(2x5)+(3x4)+(4x3)+(5x2)+(6x1) = 56.
bii) 1/6 (6) [(6)+1][(6)+2] = 56.
c) 56-35 = 21. Our ai) is also 21.
d) You can substitute any value in the place of n, from 1-5 (we already took six) and check. It's going to be a bit lengthy so I am leaving the working.
Hope it helps. Pray for my M/J 12 IGs
It's easy:Please guys need help with Q 19 http://www.xtremepapers.com/papers/CIE/Cambridge IGCSE/Mathematics (0580)/0580_w04_qp_2.pdf
thanks again
bt i forgot to mention that i was actually referring to d) only...
so it would be appreciated if u could solely explain that in detail.
sry for the prior mistake.
Please guys need help with Q 19 http://www.xtremepapers.com/papers/CIE/Cambridge IGCSE/Mathematics (0580)/0580_w04_qp_2.pdf
7.34 x 10^8hello can any1 plz write these numbers in standard form.....
(a) 734 000 000
(b)0.000587
(c)0.0004
(d)5,508
itz urgent plz my paper is on cmng tuesday.....
ohh thanksshh aloot....7.34 x 10^8
5.87 x 10^-4
4 x 10^-4
5.508 x 10^3
btw... if u have issues wid dis, u can do it directly on ur calculator
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