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not as good as expected... i screwed up Qs 9 n 10
I screwed up the subsitution integretion n 10! N also some simple few!!
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not as good as expected... i screwed up Qs 9 n 10
(i) okay umm in the first part you found that n was 10 by solving o.75^n < 0.06
GOOD LUCK!!
thnk uDear people sitting for S1 post your doubts here!
https://www.xtremepapers.com/commun...st-your-doubts-here.25911/page-15#post-564306
Because S1 n M2 are on the same date n so its likely your post may remain unanswered if posted here!!
hey can anyone tell me tht whn do we have to use 0.5 in normal distribution in the value of X..... its costing a lot of marks .. asap plzz !!
Thank you so much for remembering me among all these amazing people and tagging me. Feels good
Insha'Allah the paper will be good and easy for everyone.
Pray for all of us sis
http://papers.xtremepapers.com/CIE/Cambridge International A and AS Level/Mathematics (9709)/9709_w11_ms_61.pdf
Q-2 (ii)
Well can someone please explain how basically to do these types of questions basically ?
Jiyad Ahsan
Assalamu 'Alaykum May Allah Help you...ur welcome-although i was so useless
"it is found that the weights of 94% of the letters are within 12 g of the mean" , what does this mean ?
94% is the mean but then what is X ?
http://papers.xtremepapers.com/CIE/Cambridge International A and AS Level/Mathematics (9709)/9709_w11_qp_61.pdf
Q- 7 anyone ?
Jiyad Ahsan
No no you got it wrong...you have to consider it to be within 12g of mean so it can 12g more/less than mean so its from 8<X<32 with prob 0.94that satement is in Q5
they say that 94% is within 12g of the mean (which is 20g)
which means that if you take 20+12 = 32 (which is 12 g away form the mean) the probability is 94% (94/100 = 0.94)
so the mean would be 20, x would be 32 and the probability will be o.94
a i m talking about normal approximation .. i know how to calculate mean and all but in many markschemes and all thy take the value of X 0.5 less thn the exact value of X or 0.5 more thn the exact value of X .Um i m nt clear abt ur question bt i m assuming dat u r talking about Normal approximation...
So when u u use it when u have calculated probability using bionomal or ur mean n variance using np n npq respectively!!
lol i meant just that, but i missed it out thnx for pointing it outNo no you got it wrong...you have to consider it to be within 12g of mean so it can 12g more/less than mean so its from 8<X<32 with prob 0.94
isnt the probability 0.97???No no you got it wrong...you have to consider it to be within 12g of mean so it can 12g more/less than mean so its from 8<X<32 with prob 0.94
listen man, if in binomial distribution the value of np and nq exceeds 5 you have to use normal approximationy
a i m talking about normal approximation .. i know how to calculate mean and all but in many markschemes and all thy take the value of X 0.5 less thn the exact value of X or 0.5 more thn the exact value of X .
yeah i know alice i read the table as well and the value in the ms is on 0.97 while the in the question its given quite clearly '94%'isnt the probability 0.97???
and Jiyad Ahsanisnt the probability 0.97???
and Jiyad Ahsan
basically it says its within 12 from mean right? So that basically means its mean+12 and mean-12 which are 8 and 32.So P(8<X<32)=.94...P(8-20/r<Z<32-20/r)=.94....P(-12/r<Z<12/r)=.94 so if you remember that P(-a<z<b)=P(Z<b)+P(z<a)-1 apply that here so it becomes 2.P(Z<12/r)-1=.94 so P(Z<12/r)=(.94+1)/2....P(Z<12/r)=.97 find at what point prob is .97....so you get 12/r=1.881 ....therefore r=12/1.881=6.38and abt the normal think that you asked i am not sure abt the np and nq>5 thing but i think you are right because in a theory ans they said you cant use normal since np<5 so i am guessing you are right i havent done all the papers but from what i saw the easiest way to do is use binomial when its small or they ask you too use normal approximation when its will take too long to do the binomial like its 200+ items or something or when they ask you to i am not sure whether i am entirely right but i think thats it
by the way if someone could please explain (hopefully before our paper ) why and when (in what conditions) in normal distribution do we subtract from 1,
from what i've learned till now..
Φ(-a) = 1 - Φ(a) here to remove the negative sign
P(Z > a) = 1 - Φ(a) here (apparently) to remove the greater than ( > ) sign
also there was something about the fact that we cant read values less than o.5 off the table, so you had to 1 minus that too.. can someone explain please..
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