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Mathematics: Post your doubts here!

Rutzaba

Rutzaba

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Faithix MFSH said:
I dont understand the last step, the one right before the final answer..
How does the denominator finalize to become 1? I know that the numerator is the answer we're trying to reach, okay. But the denominator should be 1, now how does 1 + (tant) (tan 1/4pi) equate to 1? (tan 1/4pi) is equal to 1 not zero, so how did tant get cancelled off? Shouldn't it be, tant - (tan 1/4pi) / (tan 1/4pi) + tant ?
I don't think it's possible to substitute 1 with (tan 1/4pi) only in the numerator..

Please do explain.
Click to expand...
i think he multiplied it with a conjugate
 
B

Browny

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Talha Khatri said:
the vector move step is pretty easy, you have to look at A and B look at how many x steps it takes and how many y steps it takes and in what direction for you to move from A to B or vice versa for example, look at A to B, it moves from 2 to -2 in x direction, so use this:
Final position - initial position
(-2) - (2) = -4 so 4 steps back in x direction
and for y direction:
8 - 14 = -6 so six steps down.
Now you can find the co ordinates for D using equation of line and stuff and then use this translation to find the co ordinates for C.
Click to expand...
Are you sure that is the method?
 
Talha Khatri

Talha Khatri

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princeali97 said:
I dont find anything "degrading on this intellectual forum".But anyways i dont bother all this.Nice explanation :) .But my question is that the gradient of tangent and curve will be the same at that point ryt?.So how are u supposed to find the angle my friend?
Click to expand...
LOL I am not even going to bother explaining this now, just re read what I explained, it is very clear. I'm talking about two different points here.
 
Thought blocker

Thought blocker

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Talha Khatri

Talha Khatri

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Faithix MFSH said:
I dont understand the last step, the one right before the final answer..
How does the denominator finalize to become 1? I know that the numerator is the answer we're trying to reach, okay. But the denominator should be 1, now how does 1 + (tant) (tan 1/4pi) equate to 1? (tan 1/4pi) is equal to 1 not zero, so how did tant get cancelled off? Shouldn't it be, tant - (tan 1/4pi) / (tan 1/4pi) + tant ?
I don't think it's possible to substitute 1 with (tan 1/4pi) only in the numerator..

Please do explain.
Click to expand...
I think you are forgetting the fact that tan (A-B) = (tan A - tan B) / (1+(tanA)*(tanB))
so the denominator was 1+tan t right?
so we can write this as 1+ (tant *1)
and now 1 = tan 0.25pi and we can substitute this without causing any problems to our equation :p
and this can be turned into tan (t-0.25pi)
 
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