-
We need your support!
We are currently struggling to cover the operational costs of Xtremepapers, as a result we might have to shut this website down. Please donate if we have helped you and help make a difference in other students' lives!
Click here to Donate Now (View Announcement)
PHYSICS PPR 1 HELLP PLZ!!!!!!
- Thread starter jerry
- Start date
ahmed t said:
using V= IR..v know resistance is indirectly prop to current...
circiut k left side per resistance unequally distributed hai 3S n 6S ...to c jahan per resistance kam ho gi wahan zada current...to 3S main zada hai...jo k I1 hai...circuit k rite side per reistance equally distributed hai it meanx current bhi equally distribute ho jaye ga...for ex considering k ager current 12 hai to 3S main 8 chala jaye ga aur 6S main 4 laiken I2 ki side per 6 6 main hi distribute ho jaye ga ....to I1 is > 12...
n voltage is directly prop to jahan more resistance wahan more v...thus V1 > V2...
hope u got it!!
jerry said:
use lambda x d / a = x
use first info ...700 x d / a = 3...
make d subject..it will becum 3 x a / 700 = d
substitute it in next one ....
wich is 350 x d / 2a = x...
uper wala d put ker do...
350 x 3a/ 700 x 2a...
350 x 3a = 1400a..
a = 0.75!!
samy said:
okay sry i didnt abt dat...here it is in english
the resistance on the left side of the circuit is unequally distributed..dat is 3S n 6S...so c where there is less resistance more current wll go there. so more current in 3S rather than in 6S...suppose the current is 12 so 8 will go on 3S side n only 4 on 6S side....but on the left side of the circuit the R is distributed equally in 2S 2S..so the resistance will also b distributed equally dat is 6 and 6....
get it? the I1 is 8 but I2 is 6...consequently I1 is > I2..!!
samy said:dollykhan said:
dolly dude..kul mera bhi paper hai so i need one hour to finish my own papers then i will post u the xplainationx for ur ques...dun mind tho..
june 09 quest 12...
ans D..because the object is alwayx in equilibrium wen the resultant forces are equal meanx zero n same for torques...
15...both mass n height are decreasin to half cox water is goin to Y vessel..thus the potential energy loss is m/2 x g x h/2....= mgh/4
18..not enuf clear to me...but itx lyk it has pressure of pgh already so wen it is heated the liquid moves up same height of h so total pressure becumx 2pgh
nov 09 ques 12...i ve dun it wid ratio method...like..
0.15 : x
0.1 : 3..
so 405 is torque
n for force 0.15 x t = 4.5 = 30..thus the lower one is slack n it doest not have any tension so the tension in top belt will b doubled dat will b 60!
quest 21
using area under graph...1/2 x 100 x 0.002..= 0.10....n becuz itx not a strait line it will be 0.11..!!
0.15 : x
0.1 : 3..
so 405 is torque
n for force 0.15 x t = 4.5 = 30..thus the lower one is slack n it doest not have any tension so the tension in top belt will b doubled dat will b 60!
quest 21
using area under graph...1/2 x 100 x 0.002..= 0.10....n becuz itx not a strait line it will be 0.11..!!
jerry said:whats t?and where did 20 cum frm?samy said:jerry said:nov 08...q11 plz!
itx a simple mechanix ques... using f = ma for both
T-6 = 8 x a
20 - t = 2 x a....
t cancel -t...
14 = 10 a
a = 1.4
t is the tension in the strings...n 20 is ....ma...2 x 10 for second mass