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Economics, Accounting & Business: Post your doubts here!

amandeep04

amandeep04

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SalmanPakRocks said:
Read the questions carefully;
for 14:
Total share = Share of profits + what he gets from partnership agreement.
Residual profit = $50100 x 1/3 = $16700 + $500 = $17200 (D)

For 16:
It'd be C because $93500 x 20% = $18700
This would be shown in the Income Statement but in the balance sheet, unrealised profit would not be shown due to subjectivity conflict.
Therefore in the balance sheet it'd be shown as $17000

For 17:
It's tricky but read the question carefully
In April, you'll get 20% of the sales value = 220,000 x 20% = $44000
You'll get 50% of the march which would be = 270,000 x 50% =$135000
And 30% of what you sold in Feb = $240,000 x 30% =$72000
Add them up, and you'll get $251,000 and that is D

For 29:
Budgeted overheads are $11500 000
Patients are 25000
Thereover OAR = $460 but as each patient stays for 10 days, divide it by 10
so it'd be $46 per patient day and that makes A the right answer.
Click to expand...
Thanks alot! It really helped! :D
 
P

panoramafolks

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amandeep04

amandeep04

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panoramafolks said:
Because its a unitary elasticity.... an increase in price will cause the same proportion of increase in quantity demanded....this will make the expenditure same when ever the price or quantity alters... thus exp remains same overtime and answer is A
Click to expand...

But doesnt the diagram A refer to perfectly elastic curve?
 
shahz_h

shahz_h

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student92 said:
7 we know there are non redeemable preference shares 100 000 of $1 so this means now they will be ( 0.4X 100 000 = $40 000)
as for ordinary shares, they will be 400 000 X 0.05 = $20 000
So now the total is 20+40 =$60 000
Click to expand...
Thanx alot:)
 
mrgreedywolf

mrgreedywolf

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shahz_h said:
plsss help me out
Click to expand...

For Q11 I am not pretty sure but if you pay a little attention to the data it says "Loan repayable OVER 5 years" so assuming that a part must be paid this year which can be calculated as 100,000/5 = 20,000

We get the following result
=asset-liabilities
=(95+125)-(17+20+54)
=129
Answer C

FOR Q21

The material used was worth $4000 and per unit usage is 1kg per $8 with this we can find how many units were produced using this material = 4000/8 =500 Units
Since material was used for 500 units and 50 units were lost we simply deduct the loss
=500-50
= 450 were completed.
Answer C

(This is a stupid mcq. personal opinion.)


For Q26

---------------------------------------For material price variance

=(Standard Price x Actual Material Used) - (Actual Price x Actual Material Used)
=((120,000/60,000) x 57,000) - (136800)
= - 22800 Since the actual expenses exceed the planned one therefore it is adverse.

---------------------------------------For usage Variance

Standard Material Usage per unit
=60000/30000
= 2 kg per unit

= Standard Price x (Standard Material Usage per unit x Actual Units Produced) - Standard Price x (Actual Material Usage per unit x Actual Units Produced)
= (120,000/60,000) x(2 x 28000) - (120,000/60,000) x (57000/28000) x 28000
=2 x 56000 - 2 x 57000
=112000 - 114000
= (2000) Adverse


Tip : when finding usage variance always multiply standard usage per unit with actual units produced.

Wait a bit longer for your answer for Q22
 
Narcotic

Narcotic

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cool Asviva said:
someone please explain me these mcqs..
http://papers.xtremepapers.com/CIE/Cambridge International A and AS Level/Economics (9708)/9708_s06_er.pdf
Q 1, 15, 19, 20, 27.
Click to expand...

Q1:
the OC of consumption is the interest he would've recieved if he had saved insted of spending. so when interest rate will rise this OC will rise aswell. so ans is D

Q15:
+ve or -ve externality is created when MARGINAL social cost does not equal MARGINAL social benefit. CBA is conducted so that such a decision could be made where there is no externality. hence it should help us reach such an outcome where MSB=MSC. this makes D the ans.

Q19:
find out TOT. for M 1Y=2X and for N 1Y=4X. the TOT is set 1Y=3X which is b/w the this 2X<1Y<4X. hence it will be beneficial for both countries and increase their consumption possibilities(which is what trade does). hence A option is correct.

Q20:
a tax causes a leftwards shift in supply and parallel shift is caused by specific tax which a proportionate(or percentage) tax causes a shift as shown on option A. since advolerum tax is percentage tax A is the answer.

Q27:
when the demand for exports is falling so would the demand for our currency causing it to depreciate. now for inflation. AD= C+I+G+X-M so now that exports are falling the X componect of AD will decrease causing AD to shift leftwards and this will decrease inflation (as on the AD and AS diagram) so option D is correct.

p.s: if u could also mention what were your original answers this would help others understanding ur perspective and explaining accordingly =)
 
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