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Aren't you in O2?Hey, can anyone please suggest any links or books to study Further Maths Vectors and Further Maths Vector Space?
Aren't you in O2?
Yeah, it is.Hey is it possible to give CIE further math in Oct/Nov-2012 session ?????
AoA! Check these: http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/LinAlg/Basis.aspxHey, can anyone please suggest any links or books to study Further Maths Vectors and Further Maths Vector Space?
Is it true that in Further Mechanics, we need to study Moment of Inertia(Motion of Rigid Bodies) of two dimensional bodies only? All the questions in all the Past Papers deal with two dimensional objects only. I checked the syllabus but couldn't figure that out. Any idea?
Not necessarily. I have seen a question regarding the moment of inertia of a sphere. The formula sheet even has the formula for the MOI of a spherical shell. So a 2D object is not a compulsion.
The latest 2011 October/November paper had one question with a sphere.Thank you very much for your reply! Yeah, the formula sheet has a formula for a sphere but I can't find a question concerned with a three dimensional body. I checked the question papers from 1992 to 2011 but couldn't find any. Can you mention which year/session has he question about that sphere?
Hello everyone,
Could someone please explain me how they got the result for the normal contact force in this question.
I had no problem finding the frictional force but in the marking scheme they mention a force of m*a*(angular acceleration) acting opposite to the mgcos(theta) at the ring.
I don't get where this opposing force comes from.
Thank you very much!
I think you forgot to mention the question.
Sorry. hamidali391!
I totally forgot to mention! hahahah
I am having trouble with the second part of that question!
Thank you very much!
Which question? :S
How do you do Q6 Summer 08 Paper 2.
Thank you
The marking scheme doesn't make too much sense
Thanks for that, but what's the technical name of doing something like this?I think I should do a few more problems.The only reason you can't do this question is because you must not be aware of a simple concept. The marking scheme has combined the two datas into a single data.
The concept to remember is that when Y=1.02X-1.04Z, the E(1.02X-1.04Z) will be equal to 1.02E(X)-1.04E(Z). But Variance(aX-bZ) will be equal to a²Var(X) + b²(Y). Remember the sign is changed to positive in case of variance. The rest of the question is simple probability question.
Thanks for that, but what's the technical name of doing something like this?I think I should do a few more problems.
Also aare you giving the Further Math exam this year?
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