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Salaaaaaam. I could not work this geometric progression problem out. Could anyone please help me? It's the question 7(b)
Why is there no turning point?You will find from g`(x) that it has no turning points. Thus we can conclude that it is one-one and therefore it has no inverse.
It totally helped! Thanks a lot, I highly appreciate it. May Allah reward you, and I can't stop thanking for the effort you have made to help me out. JazakaAllahu khairan.Hope It Helps.
Ameen We are all here to help and I will do my best to help U and everyone here.It totally helped! Thanks a lot, I highly appreciate it. May Allah reward you, and I can't stop thanking for the effort you have made to help me out. JazakaAllahu khairan.
Sorry for l8 rep. Well I think I might have made a mistake about that but now its all clear.minato112 Can you explain why there is no turning point?
Thanks, as always.Sorry for l8 rep. Well I think I might have made a mistake about that but now its all clear.
Look at the function g(x). Its turning point is (1,8). But when you look at its domain, you will notice that it starts right only after the turning point, i.e x > 1. Therefore it is a one-one function. You get it or you want me to sketch the curve and show you?
You understood it?Thanks, as always.
Yeah I did.You understood it?
salam..
anyone, how to solve this question?
tan 3x = 4 tan x
180<x<0
Firs
First consider tan 3x = tan ( 2x + x ) = ( tan 2x + tan x ) / ( 1 - tan 2x tanx )
What is tan 2x = 2 tanx / ( 1 - ( tanx ) ^ 2 )
Try it...
(i) Express 8 cos θ + 15 sin θ in the form Rcos(θ − α), where R > 0 and 0< α < 90
Give the value of α correct to 2 decimal places.
(ii) Hence solve the equation 8 cos θ + 15 sin θ = 12, giving all solutions in the interval 0< θ < 360
How to find the angle for question ii) ? I answered question 1 already, but still confuse how to get the angle for question ii)
We have to convert to R Cos...so a is going to be the coefficient of cos and b is the coefficient of sin
Recall; R = Square root of a^2 + b ^2
α = tan inverse of ( b/a)
R = ( 8^2 + 15^2 ) ^ (1/2)
= 17
α = tan inverse of ( 15/8 )
= 61.9 ( 1 d.p)
Now for second part
8 cos θ + 15 sin θ = 12
we already know that 8 cos θ + 15 sin θ is infact 17 Cos ( θ − 61.9 )
17 Cos ( θ − 61.9 ) = 12
Cos ( θ − 61.9 ) = 12/17
Find key angle = cos inverse of ( 12/17 )
Use it in first and fourth quadrant.
θ − 61.9 = 45.1 , 314.9
hence θ = 107, 376.8
If the same type of question is asked but instead of "8 cos θ + 15 sin θ in the form Rcos(θ − α)" its 8 sin θ + 15 cos θ ? will α be still 61.9
Looking forward for your prompt response
Great thanks alot!Obviously the answer is going to be diferent. The point is not what is being converted, instead it is TO WHAT IT IS BEING CONVERTED.
Let me explain to you.
R^2 = a ^2 + b^2
i.e R = SquareRoot ( a ^2 + b^2 )
and α = tan inverse of ( b/a)
Now if we are converting to R COS, then a is going to be the coefficient of cos and b the coefficient of sin
If we were converting to R SIN, then a is going to be the coefficient of sin and b the coefficient of cos
And the best part, is that in examination, it already tells you to what form to convert it to.
http://papers.xtremepapers.com/CIE/Cambridge International A and AS Level/Mathematics (9709)/9709_w11_qp_11.pdf
Can someone explain
q2) I got the differentiation part, but how can we use the first derivative to show that all gradients are positive?
and q7)i)
I used this method:
x+3y+4x+y+3x+2y=48
8x+6y=48
6y=48-8x
y=(48-8x)/6
y=6-4x/3
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