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As the questions says, the random variable X is the sum of the two digits
Okay,
Thankss.
See.questions abt statistics
thanks a lot！！
Thank you very much for your answer! I'm sorry I still have some doubts.
I am very confused why the mean is probability is 0.5？
another question is
Isn't it as long as it is modelled normally, I should not adding or subtracting 0.5？
Thanks!
Thank youu Raiyaan4.i) In this one we use the formula F=ma instead of F, i will use T, since T(tension) is the force working here.
So for Particle A , (there is no friction, only weight and tension) 2-T=0.2a
For particle B , (there is friction and tension) T - uR= 0.3a << in this equation i used Friction=uR(u is the coefficient of friction)
Now we have 2 equations 2-T=0.2a
T-uR=0.3a
Cancel out the Ts. And since its not moving(limiting equilibrium) acceleration = O
We end up with 2-u3=o , u= 2/3 (3 is the normal contact force=R)
4.ii)Since there is upward force acting upon it, we need to find the new normal contact force. So, R = downward force - upward = 3 - 1.8 =1.2
Now also find out the friction =uR = 2/3 x 1.2 = 0.8
We make the equation for new force X.(its going to right away from pulley) X = Frictional Force + Tension
We don't have the tension we find it out by the help of particle A.(tension is same on the both sides)
For particle A, only weight is working. so Weight - Tension = 0 (cause there is no acceleration)
2 - T = 0 , T= 2
Now we can find out X, X= Frictional Force + Tension
= 0.8 + 2 = 2.8
Hope it helped
No.4
No.4
i) By resolving .. Fcos=12cos30 in x-axis direction(1)
Fsin+12sin30=10 in y-axis direction.(2)
Make Fsin the subject in the second equation .. Fsin=1o-12sin30=4
Do you know that Sin /cos = tan , right ? So to get rid of sin and cos in the equation ..we will divide equation 2 over equation 1 .. F will be cancelled from the equation and sin/cos will be tan ---> Tan=4/12cos30 ... Shift tan you willl find the angle = 21.1 .. and by putting this value in the fist or the second equation your F will be 11.13
ii) 12 is not here anymore . right ? so you have the force f to resolve :
So in x-axis direction : Fcos = 11.1cos21.1 (1)
in y-axis direction : Fsin-10 ---> 11.1sin21.1-10(2)
R = 1square +2square under square root .
and direction : tan (2)/(1)
Hope u understand incha'allah
You don't need to know where theta is . theta is the direction and there's a simple rule u can calculate it by .. Tan(y-axis/x-axis)
Great work...Hats off!c u can do it like this :
separate the 4 and the 10s :-
4^4 x (10^-1 x 10^-2 x 10^-3 x 10^1)
= 256 x 10^-1-2-3+1
= 256 x 10^-5
= 0.00256
=0.002560
don't be confused because of the last zero because it is a trick. it does not actually matter how many zeros we put at the end the answer is still 0.002560
get it??
the particles p and q has a initial speed of 12 and 7 and the final velocity would be zero as they are telling Each particle comes to
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