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Mathematics: Post your doubts here!

KZW

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1 It is known that, on average, 2 people in 5 in a certain country are overweight. A random sample of
400 people is chosen. Using a suitable approximation, find the probability that fewer than 165 people
in the sample are overweight.
A box contains 300 discs of different colours. There are 100 pink discs, 100 blue discs and 100 orange
discs. The discs of each colour are numbered from 0 to 99. Five discs are selected at random, one at
a time, with replacement. Find
(i) the probability that no orange discs are selected, [1]
(ii) the probability that exactly 2 discs with numbers ending in a 6 are selected, [3]
(iii) the probability that exactly 2 orange discs with numbers ending in a 6 are selected, [2]
(iv) the mean and variance of the number of pink discs selected.
please help me with these questions


1. X~B(400, 2/5)
But since the number is way too big, and (2/5)(400) > 50, we can use a normal approximation.
Mean = np = 2/5 x 400 = 160
Variance = npq = 2/5 x 3/5 x 400 = 96

Therefore, X~N(160,96)
You will want to find P(X<165). Note to use continuity correction as you are approximating from binomial.

z= (x-u)/sd = (164.5-160) / rt96 = 0.4593
Using the normal dist. table; a z value of 0.4593 corresponds to 0.6768, and theres your answer :)

- 2nd question
i) Probability of getting an orange disc = 1/3
Probability of not getting an orange disc = 2/3

5 picked out, with replacement, so P(X=0) = (2/3)^5 = 0 .132

ii) there are 10x3 discs in total that end with a 6.
so 5C2 (number of possible combinations in which the discs are picked out) x (30/300)^2 x (270/300)^3 = 0.0729

iii) Again, apply the probability. 10 orange discs ending with 6 out of 300 total discs = 10/300
5C2 x (10/300)^2 x (290/300)^3 = 0.01

iv) Mean = np, variance = npq
where n=5
p= 1/3
q=2/3

Pop numbers in and you should get mean= 5/3 and variance = 10/9 :)

Hope that helps :) good luck for your exam!
 
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Ow, I need the answer today, exam tom :)
Nevermind, take your time but do pass the answer. Thanks in ad
ok a parts easy
u know the formula of midpoint( x1+x2)/2 apply this and u will get 1, 4, -2
like 7 plus -5 is 2 and 2/2 =1
aur part two like ii ?
 
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wen two lines are perpendicularthe b1 or directional vector becomes the normal to the ohter vector so here we have n1= 12, 6, -6)
which we took out by (7, 7, -5) -( (-5,1,1) = 12, 6,-6
then we apply formula
r.n=a.n
where r= x y and z
and a is any point on plane
wch can also be A as it passes thru A (1,4,-2)
then we have (x,y,z) . (12, 6 ,-6)= (1, 4,-2). (12, 6. -6)
you will get 12x+6y-6z=48
Remember me in ur prayers please :)
 
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wen two lines are perpendicularthe b1 or directional vector becomes the normal to the ohter vector so here we have n1= 12, 6, -6)
which we took out by (7, 7, -5) -( (-5,1,1) = 12, 6,-6
then we apply formula
r.n=a.n
where r= x y and z
and a is any point on plane
wch can also be A as it passes thru A (1,4,-2)
then we have (x,y,z) . (12, 6 ,-6)= (1, 4,-2). (12, 6. -6)
you will get 12x+6y-6z=48
Remember me in ur prayers please :)
Yes definitely. Please remember me too. Got a school test tomorrow, and I am SOO blank :(
Thanks for the detailed explanation. Thanks!
 
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wen two lines are perpendicularthe b1 or directional vector becomes the normal to the ohter vector so here we have n1= 12, 6, -6)
which we took out by (7, 7, -5) -( (-5,1,1) = 12, 6,-6
then we apply formula
r.n=a.n
where r= x y and z
and a is any point on plane
wch can also be A as it passes thru A (1,4,-2)
then we have (x,y,z) . (12, 6 ,-6)= (1, 4,-2). (12, 6. -6)
you will get 12x+6y-6z=48
Remember me in ur prayers please :)
Yes definitely. Please remember me too. Got a school test tomorrow, and I am SOO blank :(
Thanks for the detailed explanation. Thanks!
 
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Is the formula s equals to r theta and half r^2 theta allowed to be used in the maths o level exam code 0580?
 
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is the formula s equals to r theta and half r^2 theta allowed to be used in level igcse mathematics code 0580?
 
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how was the stats paper 62 guys was it difficult or easy wht do i think about the grade threshold/......
 
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