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Physics: Post your doubts here!

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Can anyone explain this:

Question 81: [Young modulus]
Elastic material with Young modulus E is subjected to tensile stress S. Hooke’s Law is obeyed.
What is the expression for elastic energy stored per unit volume of material?
A S2 / 2E B S2 / E C E / 2S2 D 2E / S2

Reference: Past Exam Paper – June 2014 Paper 13 Q23



Solution 81:
Answer: A.

Elastic energy = ½ Fx
Elastic energy per unit volume = (½ Fx) / V


[Volume V = AL] Elastic energy per unit volume = (½ Fx) / AL.
[F / A = S] Elastic energy per unit volume = Sx / 2L

[Strain = x / L] Elastic energy per unit volume = S {strain} / 2
[Young modulus, E = stress S / strain. So, strain = S / E]

Elastic energy per unit volume = SS / 2E = S2 / 2E

SOURCE: http://physics-ref.blogspot.com/2014/11/physics-9702-doubts-help-page-15.html
 
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I just did this one the Ans is A.....I think current wont pass there because there is a shorter route of less resistance available
The answer to this question can be reasoned by the symmetry of the circuit.
Current flows from the positive terminal of the battery.
At the left junction, the current divides to flow through the 2 resistors and since the resistances of the resistors are equal, the same current flows through each of them. So, the potential difference across each resistor is the same.
Therefore, the potential at the top junction and the potential at the bottom junction of the 40Ω resistor are the same – that is, the potential difference across the 40Ω resistor is zero.
Thus, no current flows through the 40Ω resistor.
^From Phy Ref
So in other words its like the potentiometer.No PD so no current will flow.
 
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Anyone knows how to use time properly for this paper???...i think I will do easy ones first
 
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upload_2015-6-10_21-40-33.png
2(a) (ii) number 2 for acceleration.

From marking scheme :

mg – F = ma hence a = g – [F / m]
m = ρ × V = ρ × 4/3 π R3 = (1.4 × 10–5) C1
a = 9.81 – [6.9 × 10–5] / ρ × 4/3 π × (1.5 × 10–3)3 (9.81 – 4.88) M1
a = 4.9(3) m s–2

How ? and why we got/used this equation mg – F = ma ? why why not mg + f= ma not used ? why the minus sign
 
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Was gonna ask same thing ... I wrote 12, wbu? ... it was easier than last year papers ...
Went pretty well Alhamdulillah but gt mite be high
Yep u right gt will be high. I did P12 too. it was very easy for someone who had done pastpapers..CRAM STUDY PAID OFF! :ROFLMAO:
We will discuss it like after that 24 hour thing or whatever
 
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Can someone tell me how to measure % uncertainty in a stopwatch

For example i did an oscillation experiment and got time taken 28.05 seconds

how to calculate % uncertainty ?
 
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Can someone tell me how to measure % uncertainty in a stopwatch

For example i did an oscillation experiment and got time taken 28.05 seconds

how to calculate % uncertainty ?
ur stopwatch reads to the nearest 0.01 s ... so uncertainty of ur reading would be : 0.01/2 = 0.005
so %uncertainty in ur reading = (0.005/28.05)*100 = 0.02%
 
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View attachment 54980
2(a) (ii) number 2 for acceleration.

From marking scheme :

mg – F = ma hence a = g – [F / m]
m = ρ × V = ρ × 4/3 π R3 = (1.4 × 10–5) C1
a = 9.81 – [6.9 × 10–5] / ρ × 4/3 π × (1.5 × 10–3)3 (9.81 – 4.88) M1
a = 4.9(3) m s–2

How ? and why we got/used this equation mg – F = ma ? why why not mg + f= ma not used ? why the minus sign

weight is acting downwards,since the drop is moving down so the friction will acting in the opposite direction ie upwards , therefore
net force = W-F
ma=mg-f

where w=mg
and net force = ma.
 
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Im stuck in Hall voltage and hall probe concept and i cant find these two topics in Cambridge endorsed book so can anyone suggest me how to cover those two topics and how to understand these concepts?
 
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