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Physics: Post your doubts here!

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hmm.. well you can't add them cause if the resistive force was equal to the downward forces, the dude would be hanging in midair... I don't have a very good explaination for this but think of it like this.. since the guy is falling downwards and there is no force pushing him downwards, so no force causing acceleration to make him go towards the ground except for gravity. Gravity is the only force providing accelertion... so shouldn't the accelerating force be 880N itself...? shouldn't the acceleration be 9.81m/s/s?

The logical answer is no, nothing falls with the acceleration of gravity in our world because of air resistance! Why is the accelerating force less than the weight ...because there's air resisting acting against weight! and hence decreasing the accelerating force... which technically is the same force as weight but it's being suppressed. So air resistance has to be the difference between weight and the accelerating force cause that's what come in betweeen them?

If I confused you further, really sorry..

i think if the forces equalled he would be travelling with constant velocity no?:p
 
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It's really simple... here, watch this:
http://www.khanacademy.org/science/physics/v/projectile-at-an-angle
And here's the notes I once made, the cover everything on projectile motion in the syllabus but if you can't read my hand writing, check the revision notes on xtremepapers under phsyics... and if you have any questions, I'll be here.
https://www.dropbox.com/s/vcfzfuh8dy6tlww/IMAG0317.jpg (pg1)
https://www.dropbox.com/s/8pa9x7ivzc0z2he/IMAG0318.jpg (pg2)
https://www.dropbox.com/s/qjllzifs0cox482/IMAG0319.jpg (pg3)

double click to zoom, or downlaod.
THanks a lot!!! :D
 
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a)ii)
p=mv
v=p/m


KE=(mv²)/2 = mp²/m²2 = p²/2m

b)
Change is momentum (Δp) = momentum of ball before collision (m₁v₁) - momentum of ball after collision (m₂v₂)
= 0.035 x 4.5 - 0.035 x -3.5 [don't forget the negative sign here; we're putting it because the ball moves in the opposite direction after collision]
= 0.28

F = Δp/t = 0.28/0.14 = 1.75N
thanks!!^^
 
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i think if the forces equalled he would be travelling with constant velocity no?:p
you mean terminal velocity? well yeah at that point acceleration of gravity will become zero.. that's why its called free falling.. cause there isn't actually a force left that's making the person fall. But even with terminal velocity to work with.. its the same thing... if resistance was the same acceleration would have been zero.. but its not it went from 9.81 to whatever.. so if we subtract them we'll get the resisitive forces.. yeah?
 
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the new period is 0.25t where t is the old period.. so that means the new wave would occur four times within the old wave.. yeah? cause frequency=1/time period.. so you just draw a wave with the same amplitude but 4 cycles within one wave cycle on fig 6.2... and that would mean that your wave has a quarter of the period of the old wave.
 
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ANY idea whats coming in the phys practical ?????.
Does anyone know any good website for revision or test which might be helpful before i go for the exams ??
As level !!!!!
 
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