- Messages
- 128
- Reaction score
- 53
- Points
- 28
oh so its the books fault, makes me feel goodfor question no.8:
as the share have a face value of $5 and premium of $15, we will multiply the no.of share with $20, 50,000 * $20 = $1,000,000
Now as we know net assets = assets - liabilities, therefore, the effect of the debentures will be zero because in the liabilities side $300,000 liability is increasing and on the other had cash in current assets is also increasing by $300,000. so the net assets would increase by $1,000,000. if the debentures would have been issued at premium, then the result would be different.
for question no.19:
just put the ROCE forumula = Profit before interest and tax/Capital employed * 100
Operating profit = $128,000
Capital Employed = fixed assets + current assets - current liabilities
NOTE: in H.Randall Accounting book, this is a mistake. at pg 213, it states to consider long term liability and debentures in capital employed. But the book forgot to specify that if you are using Capital + long term liabilities to find out capital employed then long term liabilities are considered.If fixed assets + working capital formula is used to calculate capital employed, then long term liabilities are ignored
there fore, = $128,000/$512,000 * 100 = 25%
thanks alot (Y)