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8)Please can anyone explain:
q8 and q 21
http://papers.xtremepapers.com/CIE/Cambridge International A and AS Level/Physics (9702)/9702_w10_qp_12.pdf
And also can anyone kindly help me out in this?
Thanks alot! this is helping me soo much8)
lets see the motion in XY
initial velocity at x=v1
final velocity at y=v2
average velocity=distance/time
(V1+V2)/2=40/12 equation 1
simplifying it we get V1+V2=6.67
now consider motion in XZ
initial velocity at x=v1
final velocity=v3
V1+V2/2=(40+40)/(12+6)
simplifying it we get V1+V3=8.89 equation 2
subtract equation 1 from 2
i mean equation 2-equation 1
V1 is cancelled and we get V3-V2=2.22
since acceleration is constant so
acceleration in yz = acceleration in xz
= change in velocity/time
=2.22/6
=0.37
21)
Oh,
For these type of questions...i strongly suggest u to assume numerical values yourself..according to question..like if it says P has diameter twice than that of Q..than assume diameter of q=2cm...and therefore P=4cm..these assumptions will make it easy for u, if you still have a doubt, don't hesitate to ask.
18)
There are range of speeds of moelcules.
Some move with slow speed and some move with high speed.
Only some molecules which have higher kinetic energy will move an escape liquid.
And we dont say that solid and liquid have molecular potential enrgy as attractive forces
Hence it is C
19)
sugar is a polymer of monossacrides (glucose) and nylon is a condensation polymer so C
20)
total pressure = pressure at surface + pressure due to liquid
so P = ρgh --> 1030 * 9.8 * 80 = 807520
Now add it to 100000 that equals approx of 900000 hence D
Han, so I answer that even na. Check it yaar.Thanks alot! this is helping me soo much
however q18 19 20 were for this paper:
http://papers.xtremepapers.com/CIE/Cambridge International A and AS Level/Physics (9702)/9702_w10_qp_12.pdf
11)
26)
Thank you soooo sooo much again26)
Difference b/w node is given by lambda / 2 = L
so we have 6 nodes and L = 1.5 m
so 6lambda/2 = 1.5
so lambda = 0.5 m
34)
Resistance in 1 wire of 800m = .005 * 800 = 4 ohms
resistance in 2 wires = 4 ohms * 2 = 8 ohms
V = IR = 0.6 * 8 = 4.8 V
Min voltage = 16 + 4.8 = 20.8 V
help plz
may-june 2011/12
question 17
http://papers.xtremepapers.com/CIE/Cambridge International A and AS Level/Physics (9702)/9702_s11_qp_11.pdf
You posted link of 2011/11
Make sure, what is your correct doubt
Well, gtg here is both answers...
9702_s11_qp_12
17)
Perpendicular =80/2 =40 mm
Find the angle.
Sin Θ = 40/50= 53.1°
As there are two tensions both equal, so Force = 2(cos 53.1 x 4) = 4.8 N
9702_s11_qp_11
17)
From 1st info, calculate the mass - m = K.E / 0.5*V^(2) = 30 kg
Now from second info find out K.E using the same mass.
K.E = 0.5*30*40^(2) = 24000 J
4)http://papers.xtremepapers.com/CIE/Cambridge International A and AS Level/Physics (9702)/9702_s10_qp_11.pdf
help with question 4,16,22,29,33 please
i am still speechless the least thing i can do is thank you, i will pray for u during each prayer inshallah u will always succeed in life.4)
10 ms = 1cm , total 8.5 waves in 6 cm, so if 10 ms = 1 cm so 6 cm = 60 ms and 60 ms = 0.006 s
So in 0.06 s there are 8.5 waves. so in 1 wave what is the value of time, that will be 0.00706 s
As you know f = 1 / T, f = 1 / 0.00706 = 141 that is 140 approx so B
16)
The Efficiency = (Useful Output energy)/(Total Input Energy).
•Since the kinetic energy of the car doesn't change and remains at v, there is no change in the kinetic energy of the car.
•Since friction does not do any work (we can assume this, and even otherwise it is not useful output so it doesn't count) there is no energy lost to internal energy.
•However, potential energy does change - the car moves up a height of mgs * sin(α) (Since ΔP.E. = mgΔh, and sin(α) = Δh/s, Δh = s * sin(α) and ΔP.E. = mgs * sin(α)).
•Therefore, the useful energy output = mgs * sin(α)
•The work we put into the system is the only input to the system; no other influence is exerted by us, so the only input to the system is the work done by our force = F.
This work = F.s = Fs.
So, (Useful Output Energy)/(Total Input Energy) = mgs * sin(α)/Fs = mgsin(α)/F
Hence your answer is D
22)
Infra - red waves wary from 10^-4 to 10^ -7 so answer is C
29)
electron will always move in direction parallel to the direction of the beam. electron repel electron so it would move in opposite direction
so D.
33)
There are lots of ways for this question
I find V the easiest to use in an explanation
PQR all have same resistance
Q,R have same V while P has 2x of their V so 2V
Power = (V^2)/R
so Power ratio of P Q R =((2v)^2)/R: (V^2)/R : (V^R)/R or 4:1:1
total power is 12, divided to 6 parts so Power of R is 2W
Welcome.i am still speechless the least thing i can do is thank you, i will pray for u during each prayer inshallah u will always succeed in life.
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