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I can't thank you enough, for answering all my questions But Thaaaaank youuuuuu, seriously.
Actually, in the relay part I am still a bit confused if you could help me out, it would amazing.
I have elaborated my doubt in conjunction with your explanation
View attachment 59349
Thanks, once again.
So when there's a change in magnetic flux in the coil an emf is induced. now the + terminal is at the bottom and - at top hence d1 would conduct if d2 wasn't present and it's likely that this would damage the op-amp
So d2 is there so that it conducts the current induced around the circuit without it flowing back through d1 so op-amp is not damaged
I hope you understand?