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Physics: Post your doubts here!

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I can't thank you enough, for answering all my questions:D But Thaaaaank youuuuuu, seriously.:p :)

Actually, in the relay part I am still a bit confused if you could help me out, it would amazing.:D
I have elaborated my doubt in conjunction with your explanation :)

View attachment 59349
Thanks, once again.:)
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So when there's a change in magnetic flux in the coil an emf is induced. now the + terminal is at the bottom and - at top hence d1 would conduct if d2 wasn't present and it's likely that this would damage the op-amp
So d2 is there so that it conducts the current induced around the circuit without it flowing back through d1 so op-amp is not damaged
I hope you understand? :p
 
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View attachment 59360
So when there's a change in magnetic flux in the coil an emf is induced. now the + terminal is at the bottom and - at top hence d1 would conduct if d2 wasn't present and it's likely that this would damage the op-amp
So d2 is there so that it conducts the current induced around the circuit without it flowing back through d1 so op-amp is not damaged
I hope you understand? :p
Yeah i did.:D Thank youuu so much!:) :D :p
 
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http://maxpapers.com/wp-content/uploads/2012/11/9702_w09_qp_42.pdf
Q11 - b - ii
Why is f 10 kHz when the time period of info signal is 200??
Konstantino Nikolas I remember you had the same doubt once... did you understand why it is this way ?? if so plss explain :p :)

lol yes I got that :p
Unfortunately, our understanding of adding the signal wave to the carrier wave in amplitude modulation is itself wrong. Watch this:

So you see, the wavelength of the signal is actually 100 ... not 200. Hope you get it ... it's simple, just a small misunderstanding.
 
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