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hi,
May/june 10/43 q6 b1
anyone plz...
May/june 10/43 q6 b1
anyone plz...
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hi,
May/june 10/43 q6 b1
anyone plz...
One complete cycle has phase angle 360 deg. 60 deg means one-sixth cycle.
T2 is one-sixth cycle behind T1, or 1/6 period behind.
According to the graph, the period is 3 sec.
T2 is then 0.5 sec behind T1.
Graph:
View attachment 7512
http://www.xtremepapers.com/papers/CIE/Cambridge International A and AS Level/Physics (9702)/9702_w02_qp_2.pdf
AS PHYSICS
Q5 (b)(i)
Phase angle.
Please answer as soon as possible.
http://www.xtremepapers.com/revision/a-level/physics/i need som small and good notes abut physics....
so blind in Phy...
At t=0, the mass of iron will be zero grams. After 2.6 hours, mass of iron will be 0.7 micrograms. At t=5.2 h, mass of iron will be (0.7+0.35) micrograms. When m grams of manganese decays, it produces n grams of iron because both of them have same Ar. Do you get it now?View attachment 7563 no idea about this question ..
please help me with this !!
thank you in advance
Yes, it should be on bottom line of the square. Mark scheme just says that in different words. . .http://www.xtremepapers.com/papers/CIE/Cambridge International A and AS Level/Physics (9702)/9702_s03_qp_4.pdf
5 d ii ...cn u tell where ,ark shud be.....shud it ne on the bottom line of square
It was very helpful....!!At t=0, the mass of iron will be zero grams. After 2.6 hours, mass of iron will be 0.7 micrograms. At t=5.2 h, mass of iron will be (0.7+0.35) micrograms. When m grams of manganese decays, it produces n grams of iron because both of them have same Ar. Do you get it now?
At that time % of manganese is reduced to its 1/10th value to form 9/10 of iron(as 9/10 of manganese is decayed). Then use x = xo(exp)-λt by putting x=1/10 times xo.It was very helpful....!!
furthermore, how can we calculate the time at which the ratio of (mass of iron-56) / (mass of manganese-56 ) is equal to 9.0 ?
I am sorry, 'cause i don't get how come "9/10 of manganese is reduced to its 1/10th value to form 9/10 of iron"??At that time 9/10 of manganese is reduced to its 1/10th value to form 9/10 of iron. Then use x = xo(exp)-λt by putting x=1/10 times xo.
Oh, sorry - my wording went wrong. I've edited the original post.I
I am sorry, 'cause i don't get how come "9/10 of manganese is reduced to its 1/10th value to form 9/10 of iron"??
can u just elaborate a bit more
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