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No it is from the book (as and a level accounting by Harold Randall) chapter 11 page# 54 MCQ# 3 nd the answer is $11400
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The answer is $11400Depreciation-2002:
32000-13600=18400 x 30% = 5520
Dep-2003=4200
Total dep: 4200+5520=9720
cost=39000
nbv= 29280
Why wouldn't we calculate the depreciation for the first year?Nbv at 1 april 2002= 32000-13600
=18400
add additional fixed assets worth 7000. Now the net asset value of total fixed assets is 25400
but the depreciation provided is 4200 which means that some fixed assets have been disposed off so we can divide 4200/0.3 to find the amount on which dep has been calculated. It comes around 14000.
now subtract 25400-14000=11400 this is the net book value of assets disposed.
Yup thnx bt y will v divide 4200 by 0.3?got itt??
Yup thnx bt y will v divide 4200 by 0.3?
Why wouldn't we calculate the depreciation for the first year?
Thnk uto find the amount of asset on which depreciation is calculated bcoz we don't calculate dep on disposed assets.
welcomeThnk u
Thanks for the explainations, I'll contact my Sir for this one.bcoz it is already included in the figure of accumulated depreciation at 1 april 2002.
Silly mistake =p ...u r ri8bcoz it is already included in the figure of accumulated depreciation at 1 april 2002.
Thnx a lot_______________________F.A a/c(NBV) 2003_________
b/f 145000................................................................. Dep 25000
Bank 60000................................................................ Disposal (bal)3000
......................................................................................c/f 177000
NBV=3000
loss=1000
Bank=3-1=2000
Hello TaiyabaI dnt gt ths question
Carriage inwards in a trial balance is $2300. It has been entered in the trading account as $3200. In addition, motor expenses of $600 been posted to the motor vans account
What effect has this had the trading and profit and loss account?
Please someone explain this :/
Thnx a lot for explaining carriages in so much detailHello Taiyaba
look!!
Carriage refers to the costs of transporting goods to and from the firm. In the past, the purchase of goods would often result in two charges – the cost of the goods purchased and the cost of having them delivered to the business premises.
From the buyer’s point of view, the delivery charge would he referred to as “carriage inwards”. Any such carriage charges should be debited to debited in the trial balance!!
as the carriage inward had been written as 3200 instead of writing it as 2300 on teh debit side in the trail balance!!ok
so now we are overstating the amount by 900!!note that!!and now!in the trading account as the carriage inward is added as an expense in the cost of goods sold!!it will mean that now we are deduting extra 900 also so the profit will get overstated by 900!!!
the other entry says that motor expense is 600 which is posted to motor van account soit will incraese the profits as cos we are nt including the expense in profit and loss account which is the fault of an unexperineced accountant pagal hai!!!thus and now the total effect of both the entries would be like this:-
900(profit increase hoga)
+600(profit incraese hoga)=1500(the amount by which the profits would be overstated if this is der)
Are u talking about the effects when correcting it!!!I dnt gt ths question
Carriage inwards in a trial balance is $2300. It has been entered in the trading account as $3200. In addition, motor expenses of $600 been posted to the motor vans account
What effect has this had the trading and profit and loss account?
Please someone explain this :/
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