- Messages
- 263
- Reaction score
- 746
- Points
- 103
ci) For the stationary wave the particles between two consecutive nodes or 2 consecutive antinodes vibrate in the same phase. therefore, they have no phase difference between them. the answer will be 0.
iv) the wave will be a straight horizontal line over the dotted line. For a stationary wave there is no onward motion of disturbance from one particle to the adjoining particle, so beyond a particular instant of time the displacement of all the particles is 0.
a1) the diagram is below. for a wave s = f x lamda, therefore s = (1/T) x lamda so, lamda = s x T
the speed is same for both the first and the second wave, as T changes by .25 the wavelength also shifts by .25, which is 20cm here. thus the second wave will be 20 cm to the right of the first.
Oh okay so if it wasnt a stationary wave then it wud be 180* right?
For a1 I got it but how does it start from 20?