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Physics: Post your doubts here!

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Answer is D.
Please someone do provide a concise explanation without skipping of any points.
Quick help would be appreciated.
I created this picture in my mind and the answer came true. It is obvious that in on second all particles of air 33m away from wall hit the wall as speed of air is 33m/s. See attachment i hope it clears your concept.
 

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I created this picture in my mind and the answer came true. It is obvious that in on second all particles of air 33m away from wall hit the wall as speed of air is 33m/s. See attachment i hope it clears your concept.

Yeah thanks your answer sort of makes sense after the diagram. Sadly <ZaqZainab> just quoted what the examiner report said which was not so clear.
Its actually as you stated, area x distance traveled in one second x density. And then into velocity to achieve rate of change of momentum.

Thanks alot for your fast response!
 
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Yeah thanks your answer sort of makes sense after the diagram. Sadly <ZaqZainab> just quoted what the examiner report said which was not so clear.
Its actually as you stated, area x distance traveled in one second x density. And then into velocity to achieve rate of change of momentum.

Thanks alot for your fast response!
Oh I am sorry though i don't even know which paper its from
I thought you were having trouble in finding the values and not in understanding the question :cautious:
 
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Yeah thanks your answer sort of makes sense after the diagram. Sadly <ZaqZainab> just quoted what the examiner report said which was not so clear.
Its actually as you stated, area x distance traveled in one second x density. And then into velocity to achieve rate of change of momentum.

Thanks alot for your fast response!
My pleasure. I am flattered to hear that somebody benefitted from me. Always ready to help.
 
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papers.xtremepapers.com/CIE/Cambridge International A and AS Level/Physics (9702)/9702_w12_qp_11.pdf

question 6, 2, 10.

please can anyone explain it.

please explain as soon as possible.:)

Here is how i applied logic to these questions :

2: As Q is negative, its direction would be opposite to its actual direction. Now, just use the head to tail rule of addition of vectors and you can see that C shows the required direction

6: (I am not quite sure about this one )
y = mx + c
As both values depend on each other, we can say that an increase in uncertainty of y will increase uncertainty in x.

Now, the percentage uncertainty of y remains same across all temperatures. Seeing the formula of percentage uncertainty,

uncertainty/actual value * 100...

Now, as the values of y change, so do our actual values in our formula. But as the percentage always remains same at all values, it is evident that uncertainty must also increase with the actual value to accommodate the always constant value of 1 % uncertainty. Therefore, it can be seen that uncertainty must be smallest at the lower values of y to accommodate the constant value of percentage uncertainty.

As the uncertainty of x depends on y, therefore we can see that the same must apply to x too.

10: not sure why A can not be considered the answer here :p
 
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Salam.

Can anyone help me with this A2 Paper 4 Physics question on electromagnetism and nuclear physics?

Please provide with as much explanation as possible...

Thank you.

May Allah repay your kindness.

Amin.


Electromagnetism:

Question 6. (c)

http://papers.xtremepapers.com/CIE/Cambridge International A and AS Level/Physics (9702)/9702_s09_qp_4.pdf


Nuclear Physics:

Question 9 (b)

http://papers.xtremepapers.com/CIE/Cambridge International A and AS Level/Physics (9702)/9702_s09_qp_4.pdf

answer to part 9b is :

possible error is 10% and uncertainity is 2% so it can be 10+/- 2 which is 8 and 12 but maximum error is 10 so value cant exceed 10 which means it has to be 8 and not 12. 8% is error so we can measure (100-8)=92% accurately. now find lamda by the formula lamda=ln2/t = ln2/5.27 x 365 x 24 x 3600 = 4.17 x 10^-9
now use the formula A=Aoe^-lamda x t where A=92 and Ao=100 lamda we found out n now find t by substituting the rest of the values. you will get the answer in seconds which is 2 x 10^7 n convert it to days which is 231.
sorry i cant properly understand Q6c myself if u get it plz do help me also n i hope u understand Q9b. Above r my doubts if u know plz explain :)
 
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Q:) A neutron (relative atomic mass 1) undergoes a head on elastic collision with a stationary nitrogen nucleus (relative atomic mass 14). What is the final velocity of the neutron?
A) It is zero
B) It is less in magnitude than the final velocity of the nitrogen atom
C) It is equal to the initial velocity but in opposite direction
D) It is less in magnitude than its initial velocity
E) It is greater in magnitude than its initial velocity
 
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Q:) A neutron (relative atomic mass 1) undergoes a head on elastic collision with a stationary nitrogen nucleus (relative atomic mass 14). What is the final velocity of the neutron?
A) It is zero
B) It is less in magnitude than the final velocity of the nitrogen atom
C) It is equal to the initial velocity but in opposite direction
D) It is less in magnitude than its initial velocity
E) It is greater in magnitude than its initial velocity
D
It cant be zero. Its velocity can not increase. It's speed can not be same as some of the momentum is transferred to nitrogen. The speed of it would still be more than the speed of nitrogen as the nitrogen has more mass so it's velocity would be less in magnitude than neutron, and speed of it would decrease obviously. Therefore the answer is C.
I have considered these two principles to make these assumptions: relative speed of approach = relative speed of separation. And total momentum before collision=total momentum after collision. Even if you have slight confusion in anything i mentioned above, tell me. As it is very important that you don't have any confusions.
 
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ijlalm i guess you deleted your response. Actually very large means that the m2/m1-->infinity. That means that this will never happen unless the bigger mass is much much bigger. Such as a ball and the earth. But the neutron and nitrogen are not the same way. M2/m1=14 which is not as big as infinity obviously. Was my answer wrong by the way?
 
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This question 5 of CIE A-LEVELS of 9702/02/O/N/07 (PHYSICS ouc/nov. 2007)

http://papers.xtremepapers.com/CIE/Cambridge International A and AS Level/Physics (9702)/9702_w07_qp_2.pdf

"(c) State the effect, if any, on the appearance of the fringes observed on the screen when the following changes are made, separately, to the double-slit arrangement in (b).
(i) The width of each slit is increased but the separation remains constant.
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................. [3]"

My response:
As the INTENSITY is inversely proportional to the AREA , so on increasing width of the slit(AREA) the INTENSITY decreases. As INTENSITY is directly proportional to the (AMPLITUDE)^2 so Amplitude also decreases.
Thus bright fringe becomes less bright, dark remain the same and off course there is no effect on fringe width as fringe separation remains same.

Answer in Marking Scheme:

http://papers.xtremepapers.com/CIE/Cambridge International A and AS Level/Physics (9702)/9702_w07_ms_2.pdf

(c) (i) same separation B1
bright areas brighter (1) dark areas, no change (1)
(allow ‘contrast greater’ for 1 mark if dark/light areas not discussed)
fewer fringes observed (1) any two, 1 each


What I dont understand is how bright fringe get brighter and how come there are fewer fringes observed, according to answer??? :(

Please explain... :(
The intensity is inversely proportional to area on which it falls not through which it passes. As the bright fringes would be the same distance apart as fringe separation and distance of screen is unchanged., the area at which the light falls would be the same. But now only difference is that more light passes through the fringes and still falls on the same area. So wouldn't the intensity increase?
Lets say a windows illuminates your room and it's left half opened. it is dark(low intensity) in your room. So you decided to open your windows. You room's surface area remains same and you open you windows full. Now more light enter through it. So it will be brighter in your room.
 
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