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Physics: Post your doubts here!

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Bros, you got any special tips for paper 1? And do send some tough paper 1 questions. I just finished the rest of my AS exams today, so I just got physics paper 1 left.
 
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anything on paper 34 on 30th may 2018
A few of my friends are giving it, but i am done with my practical(v33). My friends told me there will be a water/thermodynamics experiment. You can ask around if anyone else knows the details about which type of experiments are coming up.
 
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Someone plz tell that what is wrong with statement A

I guess the main focus point here is the Elastic potential energy lost is the area ' X ' for the graph here is force-extension thus, it show lost energy.
But there was another question in june 2013 12 where it asked what the area between the graphs meant and there the correct option was amount of thermal energy dissipated in the rubber.
http://physics-ref.blogspot.com/2018/02/a-rubber-cord-hangs-from-rigid-support.html
I don't know, I am getting confused myself.
 
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I guess the main focus point here is the Elastic potential energy lost is the area ' X ' for the graph here is force-extension thus, it show lost energy.
But there was another question in june 2013 12 where it asked what the area between the graphs meant and there the correct option was amount of thermal energy dissipated in the rubber.
http://physics-ref.blogspot.com/2018/02/a-rubber-cord-hangs-from-rigid-support.html
I don't know, I am getting confused myself.
Maybe then it is the energy 'released as heat' to the surroundings...lol idk:p
 
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Someone plz tell that what is wrong with statement A
This question is really easy and simple. You can easily answer it by understanding that the area under a graph is the work done for a F-x graph. So, the total area under the graph to reach e is the combo of X and Y, thus the answer is B. What I am about to say may confuse you, so you may choose to ignore it. A being incorrect would require a detailed explanation with a diagram(too lazy for that)... but the confusing part about it is that when the spring is going from e to 0, the area under the graph is not Y... it is the area above X(look at it clearly and understand it). So when you shade the area under the graphs for both occasions(1st occasion being 0 to e, 2nd occasion being e to 0). You will end up finding that both of them are equal... hence none of the elastic potential energy is converted to heat energy which tells you that A is wrong.
 
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Bro, if you don't know how to do this, may god bless you for the upcoming exam. Really easy question...
Anyways: firstly, efficiency is the (output/input)*100. In this case, the input is the KE while the output GPE is the input. You find the KE: 1/2*500*2^2. Then all these values in the efficiency formula, the KE as your input, m(9.81)(15) which is your GPE as your output and 10 as your efficiency. You will get the final answer 0.68 kg(B) which is most definitely correct(if it's wrong, I would opt to kill myself).
 
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This question is really easy and simple. You can easily answer it by understanding that the area under a graph is the work done for a F-x graph. So, the total area under the graph to reach e is the combo of X and Y, thus the answer is B. What I am about to say may confuse you, so you may choose to ignore it. A being incorrect would require a detailed explanation with a diagram(too lazy for that)... but the confusing part about it is that when the spring is going from e to 0, the area under the graph is not Y... it is the area above X(look at it clearly and understand it). So when you shade the area under the graphs for both occasions(1st occasion being 0 to e, 2nd occasion being e to 0). You will end up finding that both of them are equal... hence none of the elastic potential energy is converted to heat energy which tells you that A is wrong.

Can you please draw the diagram? I am not getting the idea clearly.
 
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Q. no. 18 Answer:

Kinetic Energy = (1/2)mv^2
= (1/2) x (500) x (2.0)^2
= 1000 J

Since the pump is 10% efficient so,
output energy = 10% of 1000 J
= 100 J
As this energy is used to lift the water, it means that the kinetic energy is converted to potential energy. So,

mgh=100
or m = 100 / (gh)
= 100 / (9.81 x 15)
= 100 / 147.15
= 0.67957866123003737682636765205573
~ 0.68

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
 
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